Does Jesus’ Divorce And Remarriage Law In Matt 19:9 Only Apply To Christians?

Matt 19:9 "Whosoever" (just like the “whosoever” in John 3:16 = everybody)

So God’s law on marriage applies to everyone who qualifies by getting scripturally married:

· Matthew 19:2 "great multitudes" were present (not just saints)

· Matthew 19:4-6 Jesus went back to the beginning of the human race (not Jewish or Christian experience). Was Cain, etc. (who was not a faithful child of God) amenable to the Genesis 2:24 marriage law?

· Matthew 19:5,6 "a man" (so any man)

· Matt 19:8 "from the beginning" (not just Christianity’s beginning)

· Matt 19:9 “Whosoever” was actually spoken to non-Christians

As usual, many only say “context rules” when the context helps their position.

To say the only ones amenable to Matt 19:9 are the ones Jesus was directly speaking to would be saying only those Pharisees are amenable to it, and would be about like saying only Timothy is required to wear modest clothing since that is who I Tim 2:9-10 is written to.

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