Why Did The Acts 19:1-7 Disciples Need To Be Rebaptized?

Why did the Acts 19:1-7 disciples need to be rebaptized? I think Paul gives us a clue as to the reason in verse 4 – “John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.”

John’s baptism, when it was valid, required candidates to believe on the Messiah to come. When a person believed that, and repented of their sins, they received the remission of sins (Mark 1:4). But later, after Jesus had completed his ministry, died, and been resurrected, one had to believe in the resurrected savior Jesus Christ as the Messiah (Rom 10:9). Though believing in Jesus’ resurrection is required for scriptural baptism now, that would not have been possible when John the Baptist was baptizing, as Jesus had not been resurrected yet. Evidently the disciples of Acts 19:1ff had been baptized with John’s baptism, based upon a belief in the Messiah to come, after Jesus had been resurrected and the baptism of the great commission became requisite, and said baptism requires a belief in Jesus’ resurrection.

If someone today was immersed based upon a belief the Messiah was soon to come, we would immediately recognize that person’s baptism was invalid. Such would need to be taught Jesus Christ the Son of God has already come, died, and been resurrected (past tense). And then rebaptized based upon that updated truth.

And can we see the parallel to one who has been baptized, but not “for the remission of sins” as Acts 2:38 requires? If a sinner was immersed thinking they already had received the remission of sins at the moment they believed on Christ, then they would need to be retaught about the Biblical purpose for baptism, and then rebaptized with that correct purpose in (their) mind.

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