Facts About The Six Cases Of Matt 5:20-48

Consider the following three indisputable facts about Matthew 5:20-48:

1. The text never says (not one time) Jesus is referring to the teaching of the contemporary religious leaders of His day. Instead Jesus consistently says He refers to something the “ancients were told” (NASB). Maybe brethren are “reading between the lines” to conclude Jesus is referring to the Pharisees of his day?, because there is nothing in the lines saying that.

2. In all six “Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time” instances, Jesus quotes exactly (or at the very least accurately represents) an Old Testament passage. If one disagrees with this fact, then let him produce one difference in the old law and what Jesus quotes in this section. There are no differences.

3. Perhaps the Old Testament would agree in two of the instances, but in all six “But I say unto you” instances, Jesus gives what everybody would agree represents His New Testament teaching. Is there any sound gospel preacher that disputes verse 32 represents Jesus’ New Testament law on divorce?

In light of the above facts, how could anybody say Jesus is just correcting the false religious teaching of His day, and not contrasting His new law with the law of Moses?

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